A Son Has Been Born to Naomi
Here is a quick question to everyone out in cyberspace. This past week I was teaching my "Sex, Gender, and the Bible" course and we were reading Ruth (among other things). One of the things that caught a student's eye (but which did not catch mine) was Ruth 4:17, where the women of Bethlehem proclaim that the baby boy that Ruth gives birth to is Naomi's: "A son has been born to Naomi." So, some thoughts that I had that I think are all wrong: 1. This has something to do with the levirate marriage. The problem is that the point of the levirate is that the child continues the name of the dead husband (Mahlon); not the name of the living mother-in-law. One might argue that the levirate law has already been stretched a bit in Ruth (since it is being used for a non-Israelite), but this interpretation seems really pushing it to me. 2. This is adoption. But the text says that Naomi becomes his nurse - and I am unaware of such "adoptions" occurri...